Which among the following (Provision — Part of the Constitution) is not correctly matched? [2023]
Which among the following (Provision — Part of the Constitution) is not correctly matched? [2023]
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In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located? ...Read more
In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located? [2023]
Read lessDhanyakataka was a significant ancient city that emerged as a prominent Buddhist center, particularly under the Mahasanghikas, an early Buddhist sect. This city is primarily associated with the region of Andhra. Historical Context Location and Significance: Dhanyakataka is believed to have been locaRead more
Dhanyakataka was a significant ancient city that emerged as a prominent Buddhist center, particularly under the Mahasanghikas, an early Buddhist sect. This city is primarily associated with the region of Andhra.
Historical Context
The correct answer to the question “In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist center under the Mahasanghikas, located?” is Andhra. The city’s historical and cultural significance, combined with its role as a center of Buddhist learning and practice, highlights its importance in the broader context of Indian history and the spread of Buddhism.
See lessConsider the following statements: ...Read more
Consider the following statements: [2023]
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
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Let's analyze the statements: Statement I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that reservation policies made under Article 16(4) would be limited by Article 335 to maintain the efficiency of administration. This is correct. The Supreme Court, in various rulings (such as the IndraRead more
Let’s analyze the statements:
Statement I:
The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that reservation policies made under Article 16(4) would be limited by Article 335 to maintain the efficiency of administration.
This is correct. The Supreme Court, in various rulings (such as the Indra Sawhney case), has emphasized that while Article 16(4) provides for reservations in public employment, it must be balanced with Article 335, which states that the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes must be consistent with maintaining the efficiency of administration.
Statement II:
Article 335 defines the term “efficiency of administration.”
This is incorrect. Article 335 does not define “efficiency of administration.” It only mentions that the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes should be taken into consideration, consistent with the maintenance of efficiency of administration. However, it does not provide a definition of “efficiency.”
Correct answer:
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’ ...Read more
Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’ [2023]
1. The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2. Hunting is not allowed in such area.
3. People of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce.
4. People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices.
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Statement 1: "The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest." This is incorrect. As per Section 36D of the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act 2002, a Community Reserve management committee is formed by the State Government, and this committee, not the Chief WRead more
Conclusion:
Thus, the correct answer is Only three.
See lessWith reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: ...Read more
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: [2023]
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
Here is the analysis of the three statements: Statement 1: "When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill." This statement is incorrect because, as per the text, a Finance Bill is a Money Bill, and the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject it. The Rajya SRead more
Here is the analysis of the three statements:
Conclusion:
Thus, the correct answer is Only one.
See lessWho among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city? [2023]
Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city? [2023]
Read lessThe ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire who constructed a large dam across the Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometers long from the river to the capital city is Devaraya I
The ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire who constructed a large dam across the Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometers long from the river to the capital city is Devaraya I
See less“Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.” ...Read more
“Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.” [2023]
Read lessThe statement reflects one of the core beliefs of Jainism. Jainism emphasizes the idea that all living beings, including plants, animals, and even non-living entities like rocks and water, possess souls (jiva) and that all life is interconnected. This belief in the sanctity of all forms of life is fRead more
The statement reflects one of the core beliefs of Jainism.
Jainism emphasizes the idea that all living beings, including plants, animals, and even non-living entities like rocks and water, possess souls (jiva) and that all life is interconnected. This belief in the sanctity of all forms of life is fundamental to Jain philosophy and ethics.
See lessConsider the following statements: ...Read more
Consider the following statements: [2023]
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take placed
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
Statement 1 is incorrect because, as per Article 71(2) of the Indian Constitution, the actions performed by a person in the capacity of President or Vice-President remain valid even if their election is declared void by the Supreme Court. Article 71(2) explicitly states that such acts shall not be iRead more
Statement 1 is incorrect because, as per Article 71(2) of the Indian Constitution, the actions performed by a person in the capacity of President or Vice-President remain valid even if their election is declared void by the Supreme Court. Article 71(2) explicitly states that such acts shall not be invalidated due to the court’s declaration. It reads: “If the election of a person as President or Vice-President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice-President, as the case may be, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration.”
Statement 2 is also incorrect. The Constitution of India does not have any provision allowing for the postponement of the Presidential election due to the dissolution of some Legislative Assemblies. The election must be held within the prescribed time, regardless of such dissolutions.
Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 111 of the Constitution, which outlines the process of granting or withholding assent to bills, does not impose a specific time limit for the President to act on a bill. Article 111 states: “When a Bill has been passed by the Houses of Parliament, it shall be presented to the President, and the President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill, or that he withholds assent therefrom.” There is no mention of a time frame within which the President is required to make this decision. The President may, however, return a non-Money Bill for reconsideration by Parliament, but even here, the Constitution does not set a specific deadline for the President’s assent.
See lessIn India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights? ...Read more
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights? [2023]
Read lessThe Supreme Court has agreed to review a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) challenging the modifications made to the right to freedom of speech and expression through the First Amendment to the Indian Constitution in 1951. The petitioner claims that this amendment undermines the basic structure doctrRead more
The Supreme Court has agreed to review a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) challenging the modifications made to the right to freedom of speech and expression through the First Amendment to the Indian Constitution in 1951. The petitioner claims that this amendment undermines the basic structure doctrine. In the first year of the Constitution’s implementation, certain judicial decisions, such as the Shankari Prasad case, created challenges, particularly regarding the fundamental rights chapter. To address these issues, Parliament enacted the First Constitutional Amendment, introducing Articles 19(2), 31A, and 31B.
Issues in the first year of the Constitution:
• Some courts interpreted Article 19(1)(a), which guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression, as so broad that individuals were not held accountable even if they advocated violent crimes, including murder. In contrast, other countries with written constitutions allow restrictions on free speech to prevent misuse.
• Article 19(1)(g), which confers the right to practice any profession or business, is subject to reasonable limitations in the “interests of the general public.” While these terms are broad enough to support state-led nationalization schemes, it was considered necessary to add clarity through a modification to Article 19(6).
• Article 31 also presented unforeseen challenges. Despite clauses (4) and (6) of Article 31, agrarian reform laws passed by state legislatures over the previous three years had faced legal delays, prevented their timely execution and affected large populations.
The First Constitutional Amendment sought primarily to modify Article 19 to address the above concerns, as well as to ensure the constitutional validity of land reform laws, particularly zamindari abolition laws, in various states. Additionally, a few minor changes were proposed to other articles to prevent potential future issues.
Consider the following statements: ...Read more
Consider the following statements: [2023]
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
The correct answer is Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Explanation: Statement-I is correct because prisons in India are managed by State Governments, and each state has its own rules and regulations for the administration of pRead more
The correct answer is Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Explanation:
The incorrect match is Tribunals — Part XI Explanation: Part VIII: Deals with The Union Territories. Part X: Deals with The Scheduled and Tribal Areas. Part XI: Relates to the Relations between the Union and the States, not Tribunals. Tribunals are addressed under Part XIV-A of the Constitution. InRead more
The incorrect match is Tribunals — Part XI
Explanation:
Thus, the mismatched pair is Tribunals — Part XI.
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