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Qukut Latest Questions

Pankaj Gupta
  • 3
Poll
Pankaj GuptaScholar
Asked: 8 months agoIn: Politics & Political Science, Society & Culture, UPSC

How many of the given statements regarding 'Scheduled Areas' in India are correct?

  • 3

With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:                   [2023]1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.Read more

With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:                   [2023]
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

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politypollquestionscheduled areassocietyupsc pre 2023
1
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  • 48 Views
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Answer
  1. Pankaj Gupta
    Pankaj Gupta Scholar
    Added an answer about 7 months ago

    Statement 1 is accurate since, under Schedule V (Article 244) of the Indian Constitution, the President is empowered to declare specific regions as Scheduled Areas. Paragraph VI of the Fifth Schedule explicitly states that the term "Scheduled Areas" refers to those areas that the President may declaRead more

    Statement 1 is accurate since, under Schedule V (Article 244) of the Indian Constitution, the President is empowered to declare specific regions as Scheduled Areas. Paragraph VI of the Fifth Schedule explicitly states that the term “Scheduled Areas” refers to those areas that the President may declare through an official order.

    Statement 2 is also correct. In April 2018, the Union Cabinet approved the declaration of certain areas in Rajasthan as Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule. This included three entire districts—Banswara, Dungarpur, Pratapgarh—along with nine complete tehsils, one block, and 46 full gram panchayats across multiple districts like Udaipur, Rajsamand, Chittorgarh, Pali, and Sirohi. It is important to note that while a block can consist of a cluster of villages, individual villages from within a block can be grouped together to form the smallest administrative unit within the Scheduled Areas framework.

    Statement 3 is incorrect. According to the Constitution, the Governor of a state with Scheduled Areas is responsible for submitting annual reports to the President regarding the management and governance of those areas. Additionally, the President may require such a report at any time. Furthermore, the Union Government holds the authority to issue directions to state governments regarding the administration of these areas.

    Therefore, the correct answer is Only two.

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Pankaj Gupta
  • 4
Poll
Pankaj GuptaScholar
Asked: 8 months agoIn: Politics & Political Science, UPSC

Which one of the following is correct in respect to Article 335 of India Constitution?

  • 4

Consider the following statements:                                                                          ...Read more

Consider the following statements:                                                                                        [2023]
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

 

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article 335constitution of indiapolitypollquestionupsc pre 2023
2
  • 2 2 Answers
  • 483 Views
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Answer
  1. Urmila
    Urmila Explorer
    Added an answer about 8 months ago

    Let's analyze the statements: Statement I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that reservation policies made under Article 16(4) would be limited by Article 335 to maintain the efficiency of administration. This is correct. The Supreme Court, in various rulings (such as the IndraRead more

    Let’s analyze the statements:

    Statement I:
    The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that reservation policies made under Article 16(4) would be limited by Article 335 to maintain the efficiency of administration.
    This is correct. The Supreme Court, in various rulings (such as the Indra Sawhney case), has emphasized that while Article 16(4) provides for reservations in public employment, it must be balanced with Article 335, which states that the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes must be consistent with maintaining the efficiency of administration.

    Statement II:
    Article 335 defines the term “efficiency of administration.”
    This is incorrect. Article 335 does not define “efficiency of administration.” It only mentions that the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes should be taken into consideration, consistent with the maintenance of efficiency of administration. However, it does not provide a definition of “efficiency.”

    Correct answer:
    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

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Jawahar
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JawaharExplorer
Asked: 6 months agoIn: Psychology

What thought will be the last thought of the last conscious being in the universe before existence ends?

  • 0

What thought will be the last thought of the last conscious being in the universe before existence ends?

What thought will be the last thought of the last conscious being in the universe before existence ends?

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pollquestion
1
  • 1 1 Answer
  • 12 Views
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Answer
  1. Pankaj Gupta
    Pankaj Gupta Scholar
    Added an answer about 5 months ago

    This question delves into deep philosophical and existential speculation. The last thought of the last conscious being in the universe before existence ends could encompass various profound themes: Reflection on Existence: A contemplation on the nature of existence itself—what it meant to be, to livRead more

    This question delves into deep philosophical and existential speculation. The last thought of the last conscious being in the universe before existence ends could encompass various profound themes:

    1. Reflection on Existence: A contemplation on the nature of existence itself—what it meant to be, to live, and to perceive.
    2. Loneliness or Unity: A feeling of ultimate solitude or perhaps a sense of unity with everything that has ever existed.
    3. Gratitude or Regret: A final expression of gratitude for having experienced life or regret for unfinished endeavors or lost opportunities.
    4. Acceptance or Resistance: A thought of acceptance, embracing the end as a natural part of existence, or resistance, a desire for life and consciousness to continue.
    5. Memory or Forgetting: A recollection of memories, the summation of life’s experiences, or the fading away into oblivion, as if even memory itself ceases to hold meaning.
    6. Wonder or Understanding: A profound wonder about the mysteries of the universe or a serene understanding, a moment of ultimate clarity.
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Pankaj Gupta
  • 5
Poll
Pankaj GuptaScholar
Asked: 9 months agoIn: Economics, UPSC

How many of the given investments are considered intangible investments?

  • 5

Consider the investments in the following assets:                                                                    ...Read more

Consider the investments in the following assets:                                                                          [2023]

1. Brand recognition

2. Inventory

3. Intellectual property

4. Mailing list of clients

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economicsinvestmentspollquestionupsc pre 2023
1
  • 1 1 Answer
  • 45 Views
  • 0 Followers
Answer
  1. Pankaj Gupta
    Pankaj Gupta Scholar
    Added an answer about 9 months ago
    This answer was edited.

    Let's examine each asset: Brand recognition: This is considered an intangible asset. It represents the value associated with a brand's reputation and customer awareness, but it has no physical presence. Inventory: This is not considered an intangible asset. Inventory refers to the goods a company hoRead more

    Let’s examine each asset:

    1. Brand recognition: This is considered an intangible asset. It represents the value associated with a brand’s reputation and customer awareness, but it has no physical presence.
    2. Inventory: This is not considered an intangible asset. Inventory refers to the goods a company holds for sale and is a physical, tangible asset.
    3. Intellectual property: This is an intangible asset. Intellectual property includes patents, copyrights, trademarks, etc., which are valuable but non-physical in nature.
    4. Mailing list of clients: This is also considered an intangible asset. While it may exist in a physical form (as a database), the value lies in the relationships and potential business it can generate, making it intangible.

    Thus, three of the four are intangible investments. The correct answer is Only three.

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Pankaj Gupta
  • 4
Poll
Pankaj GuptaScholar
Asked: 9 months agoIn: Chemistry, Science, UPSC

Uranium

  • 4

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. Which one of the following ...Read more

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

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pollquestionupsc pre 2023uranium
1
  • 1 1 Answer
  • 25 Views
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Answer
  1. Pankaj Gupta
    Pankaj Gupta Scholar
    Added an answer about 9 months ago
    This answer was edited.

    Let's analyze each statement: Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. This statement is correct. Although India has some uranium deposits, they are not sufficient to meet the country’s nuclear energy needs. As a result, India imporRead more

    Let’s analyze each statement:

    Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. This statement is correct. Although India has some uranium deposits, they are not sufficient to meet the country’s nuclear energy needs. As a result, India imports uranium and heavily relies on coal, which is abundant and cheaper, for most of its electricity production.

    Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. This statement is incorrect. For nuclear reactors used in electricity production, uranium is typically enriched to about 3-5% U-235. Enrichment levels of 60% and above are considered high and are used for research reactors or weapons-grade material, not for commercial electricity generation.

    Therefore, the correct answer is: Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

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Urmila
  • 4
Poll
UrmilaExplorer
Asked: 9 months agoIn: Politics & Political Science, UPSC

Due Process of Law

  • 4

In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?                                                                ...Read more

In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?                                                                               [2023]

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politypollquestionupsc pre 2023
1
  • 1 1 Answer
  • 80 Views
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Answer
  1. Urmila
    Urmila Explorer
    Added an answer about 9 months ago
    This answer was edited.

    The concepts of "due process of law" and "natural justice" are often linked in legal discussions, though they emphasize slightly different aspects of fairness. Both are integral to ensuring justice but focus on distinct legal protections. Due process of law is a fundamental legal principle that guarRead more

    The concepts of “due process of law” and “natural justice” are often linked in legal discussions, though they emphasize slightly different aspects of fairness. Both are integral to ensuring justice but focus on distinct legal protections. Due process of law is a fundamental legal principle that guarantees individuals the right to fair treatment by the legal system. It ensures that no one can be deprived of life, liberty, or property without proper legal procedures. This includes the right to be informed of any allegations and the opportunity to defend oneself in a fair and unbiased setting. Due process is a cornerstone of legal systems worldwide, often enshrined in constitutions to safeguard individual rights. Natural justice, on the other hand, specifically governs the fairness of administrative and judicial proceedings. It revolves around two key principles: the rule against bias and the right to a fair hearing.

    • The rule against bias requires decision-makers to be impartial, free from personal or financial interest in the case. This principle prevents even the appearance of unfairness, ensuring decisions are objective.
    • The right to a fair hearing grants individuals the opportunity to present their case fully. It includes the right to know the charges, call and cross-examine witnesses, submit evidence, and have legal representation. This ensures decisions are made after a thorough review of the facts and arguments.

    In essence, due process of law provides a comprehensive legal framework that includes natural justice as a critical component. While due process focuses on broader legal protections, natural justice zeroes in on ensuring fairness and impartiality in specific proceedings. Together, they are vital to upholding justice and protecting individual rights within legal systems worldwide. The correct answer is: The principle of natural justice.

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Pankaj Gupta
  • 7
Poll
Pankaj GuptaScholar
Asked: 9 months agoIn: Environment, UPSC

Which one of the following is correct in respect to the Carbon markets?

  • 7

Consider the following statements:                                                                          ...Read more

Consider the following statements:                                                                                                         [2023]
Statement-I : Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
Statement-II : Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

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carbon marketsenvironmentpollquestionupsc pre 2023
1
  • 1 1 Answer
  • 26 Views
  • 0 Followers
Answer
  1. Pankaj Gupta
    Pankaj Gupta Scholar
    Added an answer about 9 months ago
    This answer was edited.

    Statement 1 is accurate: Carbon markets, once considered ineffective, have finally emerged as one of the most prominent mechanisms in the battle against climate change. By the end of 2021, over 21% of global emissions were subject to some form of carbon pricing, an increase from 15% in 2020. More anRead more

    Statement 1 is accurate: Carbon markets, once considered ineffective, have finally emerged as one of the most prominent mechanisms in the battle against climate change. By the end of 2021, over 21% of global emissions were subject to some form of carbon pricing, an increase from 15% in 2020. More and more businesses are required to compensate regulators for the privilege of emitting a ton of carbon dioxide. Investor interest is also rising, as trading volumes in these markets surged by 164% last year, reaching €760 billion ($897 billion).

    Statement 2 is also accurate. Carbon markets play a crucial role in mobilizing financial resources and minimizing costs, thereby providing countries and corporations the flexibility to transition to low-carbon economies. It is projected that carbon credit trading could lower the expense of fulfilling Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) by over 50%—potentially saving as much as $250 billion by 2030. In the long run, however, carbon markets may become obsolete as countries achieve net-zero emissions, reducing the necessity for emission trading.

    Therefore, the correct answer is Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

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Pankaj Gupta
  • 3
Poll
Pankaj GuptaScholar
Asked: 8 months agoIn: Science

Field Associated with AlphaFold2

  • 3

Which of the following fields is AlphaFold2 related?

Which of the following fields is AlphaFold2 related?

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alphafold2pollquestionscience
1
  • 1 1 Answer
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Answer
  1. Harpreet
    Harpreet Beginner
    Added an answer about 8 months ago

    AlphaFold2, an AI system developed by DeepMind, has significantly impacted the field of protein structure prediction. It can predict the 3D structure of nearly every known protein, a scientific achievement that helps in understanding biological processes. The tool has revolutionized biology, as evidRead more

    AlphaFold2, an AI system developed by DeepMind, has significantly impacted the field of protein structure prediction. It can predict the 3D structure of nearly every known protein, a scientific achievement that helps in understanding biological processes. The tool has revolutionized biology, as evidenced by its recognition through awards like the Nobel Prize.

    Therefore, answer is Protein Structure Prediction

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Pankaj Gupta
  • 4
Poll
Pankaj GuptaScholar
Asked: 8 months agoIn: Politics & Political Science

Which Constitutional Amendment in India was enacted to address judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?

  • 4

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?                                  ...Read more

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?                                             [2023]

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constitution of indiaconstitutional amendment in indiapolitypollquestionupsc pre 2023
2
  • 2 2 Answers
  • 535 Views
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Answer
  1. bhawnagupta
    bhawnagupta Beginner
    Added an answer about 8 months ago

    The Supreme Court has agreed to review a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) challenging the modifications made to the right to freedom of speech and expression through the First Amendment to the Indian Constitution in 1951. The petitioner claims that this amendment undermines the basic structure doctrRead more

    The Supreme Court has agreed to review a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) challenging the modifications made to the right to freedom of speech and expression through the First Amendment to the Indian Constitution in 1951. The petitioner claims that this amendment undermines the basic structure doctrine. In the first year of the Constitution’s implementation, certain judicial decisions, such as the Shankari Prasad case, created challenges, particularly regarding the fundamental rights chapter. To address these issues, Parliament enacted the First Constitutional Amendment, introducing Articles 19(2), 31A, and 31B.
    Issues in the first year of the Constitution:
    • Some courts interpreted Article 19(1)(a), which guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression, as so broad that individuals were not held accountable even if they advocated violent crimes, including murder. In contrast, other countries with written constitutions allow restrictions on free speech to prevent misuse.
    • Article 19(1)(g), which confers the right to practice any profession or business, is subject to reasonable limitations in the “interests of the general public.” While these terms are broad enough to support state-led nationalization schemes, it was considered necessary to add clarity through a modification to Article 19(6).
    • Article 31 also presented unforeseen challenges. Despite clauses (4) and (6) of Article 31, agrarian reform laws passed by state legislatures over the previous three years had faced legal delays, prevented their timely execution and affected large populations.
    The First Constitutional Amendment sought primarily to modify Article 19 to address the above concerns, as well as to ensure the constitutional validity of land reform laws, particularly zamindari abolition laws, in various states. Additionally, a few minor changes were proposed to other articles to prevent potential future issues.

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Pankaj Gupta
  • 6
Poll
Pankaj GuptaScholar
Asked: 9 months agoIn: Economics, UPSC

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Infrastructure Investment Trusts?

  • 6

Consider the following statements:                                                                         ...Read more

Consider the following statements:                                                                                                        [2023]

Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.

Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002‘.

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economicspollquestionupsc pre 2023
1
  • 1 1 Answer
  • 15 Views
  • 0 Followers
Answer
  1. Pankaj Gupta
    Pankaj Gupta Scholar
    Added an answer about 9 months ago
    This answer was edited.

    Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InVITs) gather funds from investors, which are subsequently directed into infrastructure projects. As pooled investment vehicles, they function similarly to mutual funds. However, while mutual funds predominantly invest in stocks and bonds, InVITs focus on infrastruRead more

    Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InVITs) gather funds from investors, which are subsequently directed into infrastructure projects. As pooled investment vehicles, they function similarly to mutual funds. However, while mutual funds predominantly invest in stocks and bonds, InVITs focus on infrastructure-related ventures. The returns generated by InVITs are distributed to investors through four primary methods: interest on capital, dividends, rental income, and repayment of capital. Previously, interest, dividends, and rental income earned by unit holders were taxable, but repayment of capital was exempt from tax. However, the Finance Act of 2023 introduced a provision to tax certain portions of capital repayment in specific cases, making Statement 1 incorrect. Additionally, the Finance Act of 2021 amended the SARFAESI Act of 2002 to recognize pooled investment vehicles, including REITs and InVITs, as borrowers under the Act, making Statement 2 correct.

    Therefore, the correct answer is Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

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